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ISC CISSP Certification Exam is an essential certification for professionals who want to advance their careers in information security and cybersecurity. Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) certification demonstrates the candidate's expertise in various domains of information security and is recognized by a wide range of organizations worldwide. CISSP exam is rigorous and challenging, but the certification is well worth the effort for professionals who are serious about advancing their careers in information security.
NEW QUESTION # 1081
What is the primary reason why some sites choose not to implement Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)?
- A. It cannot support the Lightwight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
- B. It does not offer high level encryption like FTP
- C. It is too complex to manage user access restrictions under TFTP
- D. Due to the inherent security risks
Answer: D
Explanation:
Some sites choose not to implement Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) due to the inherent security risks. TFTP is a UDP-based file transfer program that provides no security. There is no user authentication. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 88.
NEW QUESTION # 1082
Which security model uses division of operations into different parts and requires different users to perform each part?
- A. Biba model
- B. Clark-Wilson model
- C. Non-interference model
- D. Bell-LaPadula model
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Clark-Wilson model uses separation of duties, which divides an operation into different parts and requires different users to perform each part. This prevents authorized users from making unauthorized modifications to data, thereby protecting its integrity.
The Clark-Wilson integrity model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity policy for a computing system.
The model is primarily concerned with formalizing the notion of information integrity.
Information integrity is maintained by preventing corruption of data items in a system due to either error or malicious intent. An integrity policy describes how the data items in the system should be kept valid from one state of the system to the next and specifies the capabilities of various principals in the system. The model defines enforcement rules and certification rules.
The model's enforcement and certification rules define data items and processes that provide the basis for an integrity policy. The core of the model is based on the notion of a transaction.
A well-formed transaction is a series of operations that transition a system from one consistent state to another consistent state.
In this model the integrity policy addresses the integrity of the transactions.
The principle of separation of duty requires that the certifier of a transaction and the implementer be different entities.
The model contains a number of basic constructs that represent both data items and processes that operate on those data items. The key data type in the Clark-Wilson model is a Constrained Data Item (CDI). An Integrity Verification Procedure (IVP) ensures that all
CDIs in the system are valid at a certain state. Transactions that enforce the integrity policy are represented by Transformation Procedures (TPs). A TP takes as input a CDI or
Unconstrained Data Item (UDI) and produces a CDI. A TP must transition the system from one valid state to another valid state. UDIs represent system input (such as that provided by a user or adversary). A TP must guarantee (via certification) that it transforms all possible values of a UDI to a "safe" CDI.
In general, preservation of data integrity has three goals:
Prevent data modification by unauthorized parties
Prevent unauthorized data modification by authorized parties
Maintain internal and external consistency (i.e. data reflects the real world)
Clark-Wilson addresses all three rules but BIBA addresses only the first rule of intergrity.
References:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Fifth Edition, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, Chapter
5: Security Architecture and Design (Page 341-344).
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clark-Wilson_model
NEW QUESTION # 1083
Which of the following is the most complete disaster recovery plan test type, to be performed after successfully completing the Parallel test?
- A. Simulation test
- B. Full Interruption test
- C. Checklist test
- D. Structured walk-through test
Answer: B
Explanation:
The difference between this and the full-interruption test is that the primary
production processing of the business does not stop; the test processing runs in parallel to the real
processing. This is the most common type of disaster recovery plan testing.
A checklist test is only considered a preliminary step to a real test.
In a structured walk-through test, business unit management representatives meet to walk through
the plan, ensuring it accurately reflects the organization's ability to recover successfully, at least on
paper.
A simulation test is aimed at testing the ability of the personnel to respond to a simulated disaster,
but not recovery process is actually performed.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten
Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 8: Business Continuity
Planning and Disaster Recovery Planning (page 289).
NEW QUESTION # 1084
Kerberos is vulnerable to replay in which of the following circumstances?
- A. When the KSD is compromised within an allotted time window.
- B. When a public key is compromised within an allotted time window.
- C. When a ticket is compromised within an allotted time window.
- D. When a private key is compromised within an allotted time window.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Replay can be accomplished on Kerberos if the compromised tickets are used within an allotted time window.
The security depends on careful implementation:enforcing limited lifetimes for authentication credentials minimizes the threat of of replayed credentials, the KDC must be physically secured, and it should be hardened, not permitting any non-kerberos activities.
Reference:
Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP, 2007 Edition, page 184
also see:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten
Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 42
NEW QUESTION # 1085
The following concerns usually apply to what type of architecture?
Desktop systems can contain sensitive information that may be at
risk of being exposed.
Users may generally lack security awareness.
Modems present a vulnerability to dial-in attacks.
Lack of proper backup may exist.
- A. Open system
- B. Distributed
- C. Symmetric
- D. Centralized
Answer: B
Explanation:
Additional concerns associated with distributed systems include:
A desktop PC or workstation can provide an avenue of access
into critical information systems of an organization.
Downloading data from the Internet increases the risk of
infecting corporate systems with a malicious code or an
unintentional modification of the databases.
A desktop system and its associated disks may not be protected
from physical intrusion or theft.
*For answer centralized system all the characteristics cited do not apply to a central host with no PCs or workstations with large amounts of memory attached. Also, the vulnerability presented by a modem attached to a PC or workstation would not exist.
*An open system or architecture is comprised of vendorindependent subsystems that have published specifications and interfaces in order to permit operations with the products of other suppliers. One advantage of an open system is that it is subject to review and evaluation by independent parties.
*Answer Symmetric is a distracter.
NEW QUESTION # 1086
CobiT was developed from the COSO framework. Which of the choices below best describe the COSO's main objectives and purpose?
- A. COSO main purpose is to define a sound risk management approach within financial companies.
- B. COSO addresses corporate culture and policy development.
- C. COSO main purpose is to help ensure fraudulent financial reporting cannot take place in an organization
- D. COSO is risk management system used for the protection of federal systems.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO)2 was formed in 1985 to sponsor the National Commission on Fraudulent Financial Reporting, which studied factors that lead to fraudulent financial reporting and produced recommendations for public companies, their auditors, the Securities Exchange Commission, and other regulators. COSO identifies five areas of internal control necessary to meet the financial reporting and disclosure objectives.
These include:
(1)
control environment,
(2)
risk assessment,
(3)
control activities,
(4)
information and communication, and
(5)
monitoring.
The COSO internal control model has been adopted as a framework by some organizations working toward Sarbanes-Oxley Section 404 compliance.
COSO deals more at the strategic level, while CobiT focuses more at the operational level. CobiT is a way to meet many of the COSO objectives, but only from the IT perspective. COSO deals with non-IT items also, as in company culture, financial accounting principles, board
of director responsibility, and internal communication structures.
Its main purpose is to help ensure fraudulent financial reporting cannot take place in an
organization.
COBIT
Control Objectives for Information and related Technology (COBIT)4 is published by the IT
Governance Institute and integrates the following IT and risk frameworks:
CobiT 4.1
Val IT 2.0
Risk IT
IT Assurance Framework (ITAF)
Business Model for Information Security (BMIS)
The COBIT framework examines the effectiveness, efficiency, confidentiality, integrity, availability,
compliance, and reliability aspects of the high-level control objectives. The framework provides an
overall structure for information technology control and includes control objectives that can be
utilized to determine effective security control objectives that are driven from the business needs.
The Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA) dedicates numerous resources to
the support and understanding of COBIT.
The following answers are incorrect:
COSO main purpose if to define a sound risk management approach within financial companies.
COSO addresses corporate culture and policy development.
COSO is risk management system used for the protection of federal systems.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition
((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 9791-9800). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 1087
A large organization that is located in an area of California where wildfires are frequent needs to ensure that its website, which is located in the data center, remains operational. What document would contain the steps needed to recover the website?
- A. Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
- B. Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)
- C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
- D. Risk Management Framework (RMF)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The DRP outlines the specific procedures and actions required to recover critical IT systems and infrastructure, including websites, after a disaster. It focuses on restoring operations as quickly as possible to minimize downtime and impact on the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 1088
An intranet is an Internet-like logical network that uses:
- A. a firm's external, physical netBIOS infrastructure.
- B. a firm's internal, physical netBIOS infrastructure.
- C. a firm's internal, physical network infrastructure.
- D. a firm's external, physical network infrastructure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a company uses web-based technologies inside its networks, it is using an intranet, a private network. The company's internal physical network structure is used.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The internal, not the external, network structure is used.
C: The internal, not the external, network structure is used.
D: The physical structure, not the NetBIOS structure.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 661
NEW QUESTION # 1089
What is one disadvantage of content-dependent protection of information?
- A. It limits the user's individual address space.
- B. It increases processing overhead.
- C. It exposes the system to data locking.
- D. It requires additional password entry.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
NEW QUESTION # 1090
Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?
- A. Individual accountability should be ensured
- B. All members should be trained on their responsibilities
- C. The department should report to the business owner
- D. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed
Answer: A
Explanation:
When assigning ownership of an asset to a department, the most important factor is to ensure individual accountability for the asset. Individual accountability means that each person who has access to or uses the asset is responsible for its protection and proper handling. Individual accountability also implies that each person who causes or contributes to a security breach or incident involving the asset can be identified and held liable. Individual accountability can be achieved by implementing security controls such as authentication, authorization, auditing, and logging.
The other options are not as important as ensuring individual accountability, as they do not directly address the security risks associated with the asset. The department should report to the business owner is a management issue, not a security issue. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed is a good practice, but it does not prevent misuse or abuse of the asset. All members should be trained on their responsibilities is a preventive measure, but it does not guarantee compliance or enforcement of the responsibilities.
NEW QUESTION # 1091
Which of the following answers is directly related to providing High Availability to your users?
- A. Senior Executive Support
- B. Updated Antivirus Software
- C. Good hiring practices
- D. Backup data circuits
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When planning for high availability, any critical component of your data network should have some sort of redundancy or backup plan in case it does fail.
One of the ways to provide uninterrupted access to information assets is through redundancy and fault tolerance. Redundancy refers to providing multiple instances of either a physical or logical component such that a second component is available if the first fails. Fault tolerance is a broader concept that includes redundancy but refers to any process that allows a system to continue making information assets available in the case of a failure.
This can include items like these:
RAID array disks on servers so that if any single drive fails the server remains available.
Backup network connections. Many internet services providers provide these for a fee.
Backup power for all systems and circuits.
Fire suppression and evacuation plans.
A data backup practice to backup and restore data while storing backups offsite in a safe, remote
location.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Good hiring practices can ensure that good staff are hired. However, this does not ensure high availability.
C: Updated Antivirus Software does not ensure high availability, although it's a critical part of defense in depth.
D: Senior Executive Support, while this is important for funding equipment for high availability, it isn't directly related to providing the high availability.
NEW QUESTION # 1092
What mechanism automatically causes an alarm originating in a data center to be transmitted over the local municipal fire or police alarm circuits for relaying to both the local police/fire station and the appropriate headquarters?
- A. A remote station alarm
- B. An auxiliary station alarm
- C. Proprietary alarm
- D. Central station alarm
Answer: B
Explanation:
Auxiliary station alarms automatically cause an alarm originating in a data center to be transmitted over the local municipal fire or police alarm circuits for relaying to both the local police/fire station and the appropriate headquarters. They are usually Municipal Fire Alarm Boxes are installed at your business or building, they are wired directly into the fire station.
Central station alarms are operated by private security organizations. It is very similar to a
proprietary alarm system (see below). However, the biggest difference is the monitoring and
receiving of alarm is done off site at a central location manned by non staff members. It is a third
party.
Proprietary alarms are similar to central stations alarms except that monitoring is performed
directly on the protected property. This type of alarm is usually use to protect large industrials or
commercial buildings. Each of the buildings in the same vincinity has their own alarm system, they
are all wired together at a central location within one of the building acting as a common receiving
point. This point is usually far away from the other building so it is not under the same danger. It is
usually man 24 hours a day by a trained team who knows how to react under different conditions.
A remote station alarm is a direct connection between the signal-initiating device at the protected
property and the signal-receiving device located at a remote station, such as the fire station or
usually a monitoring service. This is the most popular type of implementation and the owner of the
premise must pay a monthly monitoring fee. This is what most people use in their home where
they get a company like ADT to receive the alarms on their behalf.
A remote system differs from an auxiliary system in that it does not use the municipal fire of police
alarm circuits.
Reference(s) used for this question:
ANDRESS, Mandy, Exam Cram CISSP, Coriolis, 2001, Chapter 11: Physical Security (page 211).
and
Great presentation J.T.A. Stone on SlideShare
NEW QUESTION # 1093
Which of the following could be BEST defined as the likelihood of a threat agent taking advantage of a vulnerability?
- A. A residual risk
- B. A risk
- C. An exposure
- D. A countermeasure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk is the likelihood of a threat agent taking advantage of a vulnerability and the corresponding business impact. If a firewall has several ports open , there is a higher likelihood that an intruder will use one to access the network in an unauthorized method.
The following answers are incorrect :
Residual Risk is very different from the notion of total risk. Residual Risk would be the risks that still exists after countermeasures have been implemented. Total risk is the amount of risk a company faces if it chooses not to implement any type of safeguard.
Exposure: An exposure is an instance of being exposed to losses from a threat agent.
Countermeasure: A countermeasure or a safeguard is put in place to mitigate the potential risk. Examples of countermeasures include strong password management , a security guard.
REFERENCES : SHON HARRIS ALL IN ONE 3rd EDITION
Chapter - 3: Security Management Practices , Pages : 57-59
NEW QUESTION # 1094
Which of the following teams should not be included in an organization's contingency plan?
- A. Damage assessment team.
- B. Tiger team.
- C. Legal affairs team.
- D. Hardware salvage team.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the computer industry, a tiger team is a group of programmers or users who volunteer or are hired to expose errors or security holes in new software or to find out why a computer network's security is being broken. In hiring or recruiting volunteers for a tiger team, some software developers advise others to be sure that tiger team members don't include crackers, who might use their special knowledge of the software to disable or compromise it in the future. We don't need a tiger team inside our contingency plan, however, we do need someone to assest the damage, the hardware and legal affairs.
NEW QUESTION # 1095
An organization seeks to use a cloud Identity and Access Management (IAM) provider whose protocols and data formats are incompatible with existing systems.
- A. Require the cloud IAM provider to use declarative security instead of programmatic authentication checks.
- B. Install an on-premise Authentication Gateway Service (AGS) In front of the service provider.
- C. Apply Transport layer Security (TLS) to the cloud-based authentication checks.
- D. Integrate a Web-Application Firewall (WAF) In reverie-proxy mode in front of the service provider.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 1096
Which of the following is a recommended method to control removal of computer equipment from a data center by a staff member?
- A. Only specific equipment can be removed from the installation
- B. Removal of equipment is restricted to management
- C. An authorization document signed by the staff member's manager
- D. An authorization document signed by an approved individual
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 1097
Which choice below is the first priority in an emergency?
- A. Notifying external support resources for recovery and restoration
- B. Communicating with employees families the status of the emergency
- C. Warning customers and contractors of a potential interruption of service
- D. Protecting the health and safety of everyone in the facility
Answer: D
Explanation:
Life safety, or protecting the health and safety of everyone in the facility is the first priority in an emergency or disaster. Evacuation routes, assembly areas, and accounting for personnel (head counts and last-known locations) are the most important function of emergency procedures, before anything else. Once all personnel have been accounted for and emergency teams have arrived to prevent further damage or hazard, family members should be notified of the status of the event. Providing restoration and recovery, and implementing alternative production methods also comes later. Source: Emergency Management Guide for Business and Industry, Federal Emergency Management Agency, August, 1998.
NEW QUESTION # 1098
Which of the following is the BEST approach to take in order to effectively incorporate the concepts of business continuity into the organization?
- A. Develop training and awareness programs that involve all stakeholders
- B. Ensure end users are aware of the planning activities
- C. Validate all regulatory requirements are known and fully documented
- D. Ensure plans do not violate the organization's cultural objectives and goals
Answer: A
Explanation:
Incorporating business continuity concepts effectively into an organization requires developing training and awareness programs that involve all stakeholders. This ensures that everyone understands their roles, responsibilities, and actions required during a disruption or crisis. References: CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests, Chapter 9, page 249; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 9, page 440
NEW QUESTION # 1099
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