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NEW QUESTION # 71
A forensic analyst is conducting an investigation on a compromised server Which of the following should the analyst do first to preserve evidence''
- A. Create a system timeline
- B. Monitor user access to compromised systems
- C. Restore damaged data from the backup media
- D. Back up all log files and audit trails
Answer: D
Explanation:
A forensic analyst is conducting an investigation on a compromised server. The first step that the analyst should do to preserve evidence is to back up all log files and audit trails. This will ensure that the analyst has a copy of the original data that can be used for analysis and verification. Backing up the log files and audit trails will also prevent any tampering or modification of the evidence by the attacker or other parties. The other options are not the first steps or may alter or destroy the evidence. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 16; https://www.nist.gov/publications/guide-collection-and-preservation-digital-evidence
NEW QUESTION # 72
A virtual web server in a server pool was infected with malware after an analyst used the internet to research a system issue. After the server was rebuilt and added back into the server pool, users reported issues with the website, indicating the site could not be trusted. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the server issue?
- A. The digital certificate on the web server was self-signed
- B. The server was supporting weak TLS protocols for client connections.
- C. The malware infected all the web servers in the pool.
- D. The server was configured to use SSI- to securely transmit data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A digital certificate is a document that contains the public key and identity information of a web server, and is signed by a trusted third-party authority called a certificate authority (CA). A digital certificate allows the web server to establish a secure connection with the clients using the HTTPS protocol, and also verifies the authenticity of the web server. A self-signed certificate is a digital certificate that is not signed by a CA, but by the web server itself. A self-signed certificate can cause issues with the website, as it may not be trusted by the clients or their browsers. Clients may receive warnings or errors when trying to access the website, indicating that the site could not be trusted or that the connection is not secure. Official References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers
NEW QUESTION # 73
An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack. Which of the following logs should the team review first?
- A. Vulnerability scanner
- B. DNS
- C. CDN
- D. Web server
Answer: B
Explanation:
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a target's network or server with a large volume of traffic from multiple sources. A common technique for launching a DDoS attack is to compromise DNS servers, which are responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses. By flooding DNS servers with malicious requests, attackers can disrupt the normal functioning of the internet and prevent users from accessing external SaaS resources. Official Reference: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/
NEW QUESTION # 74
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report and must make recommendations to the executive team. The analyst finds that most systems can be upgraded with a reboot resulting in a single downtime window. However, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation do these systems and associated vulnerabilities best represent?
- A. Legacy systems
- B. Proprietary systems
- C. Unsupported operating systems
- D. Lack of maintenance windows
Answer: B
Explanation:
Proprietary systems are systems that are owned and controlled by a specific vendor or manufacturer, and that use proprietary standards or protocols that are not compatible with other systems. Proprietary systems can pose a challenge for vulnerability management, as they may not allow users to access or modify their configuration, update their software, or patch their vulnerabilities. In this case, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. This indicates that these systems and associated vulnerabilities are examples of proprietary systems as inhibitors to remediation
NEW QUESTION # 75
A technician working at company.com received the following email:
After looking at the above communication, which of the following should the technician recommend to the security team to prevent exposure of sensitive information and reduce the risk of corporate data being stored on non-corporate assets?
- A. A rule should be placed on the DLP to flag employee IDs and serial numbers.
- B. An email banner should be implemented to identify emails coming from external sources.
- C. A VPN should be used to allow technicians to troubleshoot computer issues securely.
- D. Forwarding of corporate email should be disallowed by the company.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An email banner is a message that is added to the top or bottom of an email to provide some information or warning to the recipient. An email banner should be implemented to identify emails coming from external sources to prevent exposure of sensitive information and reduce the risk of corporate data being stored on non-corporate assets. An email banner can help employees recognize phishing or spoofing attempts and avoid clicking on malicious links or attachments. It can also remind employees not to share confidential information with external parties or forward corporate emails to personal accounts. The other options are not relevant or effective for this purpose. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 13; https://www.csoonline.com/article/3235970/what-is-spoofing-definition-and-how-to-prevent-it.html
NEW QUESTION # 76
A new cybersecurity analyst is tasked with creating an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization. Which of the following will produce the data needed for the briefing?
- A. Risk assessment
- B. Access control lists
- C. Indicators of compromise
- D. Firewall logs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Indicators of compromise (IoCs) are pieces of data or evidence that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker or malware. IoCs can include IP addresses, domain names, URLs, file hashes, registry keys, network traffic patterns, user behaviors, or system anomalies. IoCs can be used to detect, analyze, and respond to security incidents, as well as to share threat intelligence with other organizations or authorities. IoCs can produce the data needed for an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization, as they can provide information on the source, nature, scope, impact, and mitigation of the threats.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A security analyst recently joined the team and is trying to determine which scripting language is being used in a production script to determine if it is malicious. Given the following script:
Which of the following scripting languages was used in the script?
- A. Shell script
- B. Ruby
- C. Python
- D. PowerShel
Answer: D
Explanation:
The script uses PowerShell syntax, such as cmdlets, parameters, variables, and comments. PowerShell is a scripting language that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems.
NEW QUESTION # 78
An organization supports a large number of remote users. Which of the following is the best option to protect the data on the remote users' laptops?
- A. Implement a DLP solution.
- B. Require employees to sign an NDA.
- C. Use whole disk encryption.
- D. Require the use of VPNs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using whole disk encryption is the best option to protect the data on the remote users' laptops. Whole disk encryption is a technique that encrypts all data on a hard disk drive, including the operating system, applications and files. Whole disk encryption can prevent unauthorized access to the data if the laptop is lost, stolen or compromised. Whole disk encryption can also protect the data from physical attacks, such as removing the hard disk and connecting it to another device .
NEW QUESTION # 79
An analyst received an alert regarding an application spawning a suspicious command shell process Upon further investigation, the analyst observes the following registry change occurring immediately after the suspicious event:
Which of the following was the suspicious event able to accomplish?
- A. Implement beaconing.
- B. Bypass file access controls.
- C. Establish persistence.
- D. Impair defenses.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The suspicious event was able to accomplish establishing persistence by creating a registry change that runs a command shell process every time a user logs on. The registry change modifies the Userinit value under the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Winlogon key, which specifies what programs should run when a user logs on to Windows. By appending "cmd.exe," to the existing value, the event ensures that a command shell process will be launched every time a user logs on, which can allow the attacker to maintain access to the system or execute malicious commands. The other options are not related to the registry change. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 10; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/sysinfo/userinit-entry
NEW QUESTION # 80
A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:
Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?
- A. PBleach:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: No
Smear: No
Channing: Yes - B. TSpirit:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: Yes
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No - C. ENameless:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No - D. InLoud:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: Yes
Channing: No
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:
TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No
This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following security operations tasks are ideal for automation?
- A. Email header analysis:
Check the email header for a phishing confidence metric greater than or equal to five Add the domain of sender to the block list Move the email to quarantine - B. Suspicious file analysis:
- C. Firewall IoC block actions:
Examine the firewall logs for IoCs from the most recently published zero-day exploit Take mitigating actions in the firewall to block the behavior found in the logs Follow up on any false positives that were caused by the block rules - D. Security application user errors:
Search the error logs for signs of users having trouble with the security application Look up the user's phone number Call the user to help with any questions about using the application
Answer: A
Explanation:
Email header analysis is one of the security operations tasks that are ideal for automation. Email header analysis involves checking the email header for various indicators of phishing or spamming attempts, such as sender address spoofing, mismatched domains, suspicious subject lines, or phishing confidence metrics. Email header analysis can be automated using tools or scripts that can parse and analyze email headers and take appropriate actions based on predefined rules or thresholds
NEW QUESTION # 82
A security analyst discovers the company's website is vulnerable to cross-site scripting. Which of the following solutions will best remedy the vulnerability?
- A. Server-side input validation
- B. Disabled JavaScript filtering
- C. Client-side input encoding
- D. Prepared statements
Answer: A
Explanation:
Server-side input validation is a solution that can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities by checking and filtering any user input that is sent to the server before rendering it on a web page. Server-side input validation can help to ensure that the user input conforms to the expected format, length and type, and does not contain any malicious characters or syntax that may alter the logic or behavior of the web page. Server-side input validation can also reject or sanitize any input that does not meet the validation criteria .
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system?
- A. Mean time to detect
- B. Number of exploits by tactic
- C. Quantity of intrusion attempts
- D. Alert volume
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations. Official Reference: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following concepts is using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system an example of?
- A. Automation
- B. Single sign-on
- C. Data enrichment
- D. Command and control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Automation is the best concept to describe the example, as it reflects the use of technology to perform tasks or processes without human intervention. Automation can help to improve efficiency, accuracy, consistency, and scalability of various operations, such as identity and access management (IAM). IAM is a security framework that enables organizations to manage the identities and access rights of users and devices across different systems and applications. IAM can help to ensure that only authorized users and devices can access the appropriate resources at the appropriate time and for the appropriate purpose. IAM can involve various tasks or processes, such as authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, auditing, or reporting.
Automation can help to simplify and streamline these tasks or processes by using software tools or scripts that can execute predefined actions or workflows based on certain triggers or conditions. For example, automation can help to create, update, or delete user accounts in bulk based on a file or a database, rather than manually entering or modifying each account individually. The example in the question shows that an API is used to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system. An API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and exchange data with each other. An API can help to enable automation by providing a standardized and consistent way to access and manipulate data or functionality of a software component or system. The example in the question shows that an API is used to automate the process of inserting bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system, rather than manually entering each request one by one. The other options are not correct, as they describe different concepts or techniques. Command and control is a term that refers to the ability of an attacker to remotely control a compromised system or device, such as using malware or backdoors. Command and control is not related to what is described in the example.
Data enrichment is a term that refers to the process of enhancing or augmenting existing data with additional information from external sources, such as adding demographic or behavioral attributes to customer profiles.
Data enrichment is not related to what is described in the example. Single sign-on is a term that refers to an authentication method that allows users to access multiple systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as using a single username and password for different websites or services. Single sign-on is not related to what is described in the example.
NEW QUESTION # 85
A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability:
Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?
- A. Log entry 4
- B. Log entry 1
- C. Log entry 3
- D. Log entry 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Log entry 4 shows an attempt to exploit the zero-day command injection vulnerability by appending a malicious command (;cat /etc/passwd) to the end of a legitimate request (/cgi-bin/index.cgi?name=John). This command would try to read the contents of the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information, and could lead to further compromise of the system. The other log entries do not show any signs of command injection, as they do not contain any special characters or commands that could alter the intended behavior of the application. Official References:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/command-injection/
https://www.zerodayinitiative.com/advisories/published/
NEW QUESTION # 86
A security analyst is trying to identify anomalies on the network routing. Which of the following functions can the analyst use on a shell script to achieve the objective most accurately?
- A. function x() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
- B. function x() { info=$(dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1}
').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" } - C. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" }
- D. function x() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F "/" 'END{print $5}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is:
function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" } This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies
NEW QUESTION # 87
A company that has a geographically diverse workforce and dynamic IPs wants to implement a vulnerability scanning method with reduced network traffic. Which of the following would best meet this requirement?
- A. Credentialed
- B. External
- C. Non-credentialed
- D. Agent-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
Agent-based vulnerability scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report the results to a central server or console. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can reduce network traffic, as the scans are performed locally and only the results are transmitted over the network. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can also provide more accurate and up-to-date results, as the agents can scan continuously or on-demand, regardless of the system or network status or location.
NEW QUESTION # 88
A security analyst discovers an ongoing ransomware attack while investigating a phishing email. The analyst downloads a copy of the file from the email and isolates the affected workstation from the network. Which of the following activities should the analyst perform next?
- A. Shut down the email server and quarantine it from the network.
- B. Acquire a bit-level image of the affected workstation.
- C. Search for other mail users who have received the same file.
- D. Wipe the computer and reinstall software
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Searching for other mail users who have received the same file is the best activity to perform next, as it helps to identify and contain the scope of the ransomware attack and prevent further damage. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files on a system and demands payment for their decryption. Ransomware can spread through phishing emails that contain malicious attachments or links that download the ransomware. By searching for other mail users who have received the same file, the analyst can alert them not to open it, delete it from their inboxes, and scan their systems for any signs of infection. The other activities are not as urgent or effective as searching for other mail users who have received the same file, as they do not address the immediate threat of ransomware spreading or affecting more systems. Wiping the computer and reinstalling software may restore the functionality of the affected workstation, but it will also erase any evidence of the ransomware attack and make recovery of encrypted files impossible. Shutting down the email server and quarantining it from the network may stop the delivery of more phishing emails, but it will also disrupt normal communication and operations for the organization. Acquiring a bit-level image of the affected workstation may preserve the evidence of the ransomware attack, but it will not help to stop or remove the ransomware or decrypt the files.
NEW QUESTION # 89
A SOC manager receives a phone call from an upset customer. The customer received a vulnerability report two hours ago: but the report did not have a follow-up remediation response from an analyst. Which of the following documents should the SOC manager review to ensure the team is meeting the appropriate contractual obligations for the customer?
- A. NDA
- B. MOU
- C. Limitation of liability
- D. SLA
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
SLA stands for service level agreement, which is a contract or document that defines the expectations and obligations between a service provider and a customer regarding the quality, availability, performance, or scope of a service. An SLA may also specify the metrics, penalties, or remedies for measuring or ensuring compliance with the agreed service levels. An SLA can help the SOC manager review if the team is meeting the appropriate contractual obligations for the customer, such as response time, resolution time, reporting frequency, or communication channels.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following is an important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident?
- A. Discuss the financial impact of the incident to determine if security controls are well spent
- B. Determine if an internal mistake was made and who did it so they do not repeat the error
- C. Present all legal evidence collected and turn it over to iaw enforcement
- D. Identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
An important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident is to identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures. The lessons-learned step is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents
NEW QUESTION # 91
The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?
- A. A mean time to respond of 15 days
- B. Third-party application testing
- C. A mean time to remediate of 30 days
- D. A mean time to detect of 45 days
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited
NEW QUESTION # 92
The security team reviews a web server for XSS and runs the following Nmap scan:
Which of the following most accurately describes the result of the scan?
- A. The vulnerable parameter and unfiltered or encoded characters passed > and " as unsafe
- B. The vulnerable parameter and characters > and " with a reflected XSS attempt
- C. An output of characters > and " as the parameters used m the attempt
- D. The vulnerable parameter ID hccp://l72.31.15.2/1.php?id-2 and unfiltered characters returned
Answer: B
Explanation:
A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user's browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following lines from this output most likely indicates that attackers could quickly use brute force and determine the negotiated secret session key?
- A. TLS_DHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA 128 DH (1024 bits)
- B. TLS_RSA_WITH_AES_256_CBC_SHA 256
- C. TLS_DHE_RSA_WITH_AES_256_GCM_SHA256 DH (2048 bits)
- D. TLS_RSA_WITH_DES_CBC_SHA 56
Answer: A
Explanation:
The line from this output that most likely indicates that attackers could quickly use brute force and determine the negotiated secret session key is TLS_DHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA 128 DH (1024 bits). This line indicates that the cipher suite uses Diffie-Hellman ephemeral (DHE) key exchange with RSA authentication, AES 128-bit encryption with cipher block chaining (CBC) mode, and SHA-1 hashing. The DHE key exchange uses a 1024-bit Diffie-Hellman group, which is considered too weak for modern security standards and can be broken by attackers using sufficient computing power. The other lines indicate stronger cipher suites that use longer key lengths or more secure algorithms. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/secauthn/cipher-suites-in-schannel
NEW QUESTION # 94
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam, also known as CS0-003, is a certification exam designed for IT professionals who want to establish their skills in cybersecurity analysis. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is the most recent addition to the CompTIA IT certifications and is well recognized globally. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam measures the skills required to configure and use threat detection tools, analyze data, and identify vulnerabilities, threats, and risks to an organization's security.
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