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NEW QUESTION 170
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa is integral in the process of platelet aggregation as well as clot retraction.
A defective clot retraction might be caused by which one of these?
- A. Lack of or defect of platelet receptor Ilb/IIIa
- B. Lack of or defect of platelet receptor glycoprotein Ib
- C. Absence or defect of von Willebrand's factor
- D. Insufficient storage of ADP in platelet granules
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 171
Bone marrow biopsies are helpful diagnostic tools in:
Evaluation of anemia and thrombocytopenia
Evaluation of cytopenias
Diagnosing leukemias
Can be part of evaluation for FUO
Bone marrow biopsies are NOT used as screens for hematologic issues during routine check-ups.
Hematology
In which of the following situations would a bone marrow aspirate and biopsy possibly be used as an aid for diagnosis? (Select all that apply)
- A. Evaluation of fever of unknown origin (FUO)
- B. Diagnosis of leukemias
- C. Screening for hematologic issues during routine check-ups
- D. Evaluation of anemia and thrombocytopenia
- E. Evaluation of cytopenias
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION 172
Convert the following temperature from Celsius to Fahrenheit
20 degrees C
Question options:
- A. 39.2 degrees F
- B. 77 degrees F
- C. 14 degrees F
- D. 68 degrees F
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 173
Blood bank
Once the seal on a unit of packed red cells is broken, how long can the unit be stored refrigerated prior to administration:
- A. 48 hours
- B. 12 hours
- C. 24 hours
- D. 4 hours
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 174
Healthcare workers that worked closely with patient specimens were at an increased risk of contracting which viral infection before a vaccine was developed?
- A. Hepatitis A
- B. HIV
- C. Hepatitis C
- D. Hepatitis B
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 175
The red blood cell distribution width (RDW) increases as the severity of alpha thalassemia increases because of changing MCV as the bone marrow produces smaller cells. In addition, if Hemoglobin H bodies are present, they result in the formation of schiztocytes (RBC fragments) that can have an effect on the MCV and RDW.
The Red cell Distribution Width (RDW) in alpha thalassemia is
- A. usually increased
- B. usually decreased
- C. within normal limits
- D. dependent upon severity
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 176
Calcium oxalates can be found in normal urine in varying pH levels. Ammonium biurate and triple phosphate can be found in normal alkaline urine. Leucine crystals are always abnormal, and can be found in maple syrup urine disease.
Which one of the following crystals is NOT found in normal urine?
- A. Leucine
- B. Ammonium biurate
- C. Triple phosphate
- D. Calcium oxalate
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 177
Allergen-specific IgE, synthesized in response to allergens, becomes fixed to receptors on cellular membranes, especially those of basophils. If these receptor-bound IgE molecules are aggregated on re-exposure to specific allergen, both mast cells and basophils produce mediators that result in the allergic response. IgE-antigen interaction at the cell surface causes degranulation of cells and release of substances including: histamine, SRS-A, platelet activator, a kallikrein, and an eosinophil chemotactic factor. Basophils are the principal cells that bind IgE antibody while their number of receptor sites is proportional to serum IgE levels. Eosinophils are drawn to the site by the basophil chemotaxis mechanism, but are not the main cell which binds the IgE antibody.
Immunology
The mediator cells that bind MOST to IgE antibodies are:
- A. Eosinophils
- B. Macrophages
- C. Basophils
- D. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 178
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins, or TSI's, are IgG antibodies that can bind to thyrotropin (TSH) receptors on the thyroid gland. TSIs mimic the action of TSH, causing excess secretion of thyroxine and triiodothyronine. The TSI level is abnormally high in persons with hyperthyroidism due to Graves' disease.
Which of the following is an autoantibody that binds to TSH receptor sites on thyroid cell membranes preventing thyroid-stimulating hormone binding?
- A. Antithyroglobulin
- B. Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
- C. Lupus erythematosus
- D. Thyroxin-binding globulins
- E. Antimicrosomal antibodies
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 179
A young man is experiencing difficult breathing after fainting. The physician orders a blood gas analysis which shows the following results:
pH = 7.25
pCO2 = 62 mmHg
pO2 = 70 mmHg
HCO3 = 23 mEq/L
Which condition is most likely afflicting this patient?
- A. respiratory acidosis
- B. metabolic alkalosis
- C. respiratory alkalosis
- D. metabolic acidosis
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 180
A person classified as an ultrarapid metabolizer (UM) has a polymorphism that enhances the catabolic activity of the enzyme. This means that a UM would need more of the drug to achieve a 'normal' level since he/she is rapidly metabolizing the drug.
Chem
In therapeutic drug monitoring, a person who is classified as an ultrarapid metabolizer (UM) would need
__________ of a drug metabolized by that enzyme.
- A. A higher dose
- B. The standard dose
- C. A lower dose
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 181
HbsAg is positive in acute and chronic Hepatitis B infections, since the antigen is found on the actual surface of the virus. HbeAg is present in the blood when the hepatitis B viruses are replicating, indicating an active infection. Anti-Hbc IgM is present due to the immune response to the presence of the hepatitis core antigen and indicates an acute infection. Anti-HBs is generally interpreted as indicating recovery and immunity from hepatitis B virus infection, according to the CDC.
Given the following results, what is the immune status of the patient?
HbsAg: positive
HbeAg: positive
Anti-HBc IgM: positive
Anti-HBs: negative
- A. acute infection
- B. susceptible
- C. immunization
- D. chronic infection
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 182
The purpose of protective isolation is to protect:
- A. the phlebotomist from infection
- B. the patient from family conflicts
- C. the phlebotomist after a needlestick
- D. a compromised patient from infection
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 183
On the red cell membrane, there is a bicarbonate / chloride exchanger. This exchanger allows for bicarbonate to leave the red cells while chloride is allowed inside.
In blood, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with:
- A. phosphorus
- B. sodium
- C. potassium
- D. chloride
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 184
The activities conducted in a laboratory with a certificate of registration include:
- A. physicians to perform microscopy only
- B. waived tests only
- C. moderate- or high-complexity lab testing until the lab is determined by survey to be in compliance
- D. urinalysis only
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 185
The primary mechanism responsible for glomerular filtration is:
- A. Osmotic gradient
- B. Rate of blood flow through the kidneys
- C. Concentration of blood components
- D. Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 186
A cardiac risk profile is performed in:
- A. serology.
- B. hematology.
- C. coagulation.
- D. chemistry.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 187
21 CFR 606.65 states, "Supplies and reagents shall be used in a manner consistent with instructions provided by the manufacturer." The correct answer is A. The reagents must be used according to the manufacturer's instructions for use. If the instructions say one or two drops may be used and the facility procedures also allow one or two drops, then there is no problem with the staff members choosing to use two drops.
While equipment must be calibrated, it does not generally influence the number of drops used.
Staff members often ask co-workers and colleagues from other facilities how to perform tasks, but it is the manufacturer's instructions for the operation of equipment and the use of reagents that must be followed.
A laboratory employee who is performing an internal audit of routine ABO and Rh typing procedures notes that a technologist places two drops of Anti-D in a tube, centrifuges the tube for 20 seconds, and reads the reaction using a magnifying mirror. When questioned about the procedure, the technologist indicates that most staff use two drops of Anti-D reagent because the reactions are stronger with two drops. In addition to reviewing the facility procedure manual, what should be done to ensure regulatory compliance?
- A. Check the calibration records for the centrifuge.
- B. Call a colleague at another institution to ask what they do.
- C. Review the anti-D manufacturer's current instructions for use.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 188
Lipids tend to form a "maltese cross" pattern when viewed in polarized light, which helps to differentiate them from other urine microscopic components.
Substances found in urinary sediment that are more easily distinguished by use of polarized microscope are:
- A. Casts
- B. Crystals
- C. RBC
- D. WBC
- E. Lipids
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 189
Francisella is slow growing on primary isolation culture media and produces poorly-staining coccobacilli on Gram stain. Because Francisella tularensis is included on the list of bioterrorism agents, suspicious isolates should be referred immediately to a public health laboratory in lieu of attempting an in-laboratory identification.
One of the BIGGEST problems with isolating Francisella is that these organisms:
- A. grow so slowly
- B. produce wide zones of hemolysis
- C. overgrow other organisms
- D. produce greenish colonies like E. coli
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 190
Failure to deliver glucose drawn in a serum separator tube (SST) to the laboratory within the recommended time will cause:
Question options:
- A. a falsely increased glucose value
- B. both A and C
- C. a falsely decreased glucose value
- D. glycolysis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 191
Stuart Prower factor, or factor X, would cause abnormal PT, aPTT, and dRVVT test results as factor X is part of the common coagulation pathway and therefore measured in both the PT and aPTT test. In the dRVVT test, factor X is directly activated in the test principle; therefore an abnormal result would be expected in this test as well if there was a deficiency in factor X.
What tests will be abnormal in a patient with Stuart-Prower Factor deficiency?
- A. a & b & c
- B. Russel Viper Venom Test (dRVVT)
- C. a & b
- D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)
- E. Prothrombin Time (PT)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 192
Beer's law is based on the fact that absorbance is directly proportional to the concentration of a solution.
Therefore, stray light can alter the absorbance results in this type of assay.
Deviations from Beer's Law are caused by:
- A. polychromatic light
- B. very high concentrations of substance being measured in a colorimetric reaction
- C. stray light
- D. very low concentration of absorbing material
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 193
Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTR) usually occur within which time period?
- A. 5 hours after transfusion
- B. one year after transfusion answer
- C. 3-10 days after transfusion
- D. 24 hours after transfusion
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 194
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